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Satan conned man but Jesus was not interested in sin. Ps. 16:10, Isa 11:4, 5.

I will no longer talk much with you, for the ruler of this world is coming, and he has nothing in Me (Jn 14:30).

"Jn 14:30 the ruler of this world. Judas was only a tool of the "prince" who rules the system of darkness-Satan (6:70; 13:21, 27). nothing in Me. The Heb. idiom means that Satan had nothing on Jesus, could make [John 8:46; 2 Cor. 5:21; Heb. 4:15; 1 Pet. 1:19; 2:22] no claim on Him, nor charge Him with any sin. Therefore, Satan could not hold Him in death. Christ would triumph and destroy Satan (Heb. 2:14). His death was no sign that Satan won, but that God’s will was being done. (v. 31)."
Heb. Hebrew
MacArthur, John Jr: The MacArthur Study Bible. electronic ed. Nashville : Word Pub., 1997, c1997, S. Jn 14:30 The New King James Version. Nashville : Thomas Nelson, 1982

"The Prince of this world had nothing on me 'I don't have any itch the devil can scratch' is what that means." ~ Adrian Rogers

Godrulz's Jesus is unholy and unrighteous. He does not exist. 1 Jn 3:5, Jn 8:46, Heb. 7:26, 27

SD: “ Could he [jesus] have sinned?
Godrulz: “I believe He could have, but did not…” link

 

Why do babies die? What sin have they committed. How was Jesus different from other babies when he was born? Was his heart wicked like any other man born after Adam? Mt 15:19. How is Jesus different from other men?

 

"Moral depravity relates so spiritual and eternal death, not just physical death. It is individual, personal, volitional, not genetic.  Jesus was different from other babies because He alone is the God-Man, one person with two natures, God in the flesh. He is also unique as a man in that He is sinless (never sinned)."

 

“…[T]here must be added to those conditions the inner and always unforced "yes" or "no" by which the person responds to the situation...” Full text

Did Jesus have a corrupt heart (Mt 15:19 ) like every man after Adam? Ps 51:5. What part of his heart could have said "yes" to sin?

"...The reason we all die young and old is because we have the sin nature...A person does not become a sinner by committing sin but he commits sin because he is by nature a sinner (Youssef)..." Ro 5:12-14.

See:

 Grace Overwhelms Sin by Michael Youssef (right click, "save target as" to download)

The grace of God is greater than sin, Uncle Fester (Ro 5:20).

Jesus condemned sin in the flesh. Why do you claim that he could have sinned? Pray tell, where did you get that information?

"Everything in the scriptures goes against spurning the law. Jesus himself identified those who love him as the ones who keep his commandments (John 14:23-24). John said bluntly, "Sin is lawlessness" (1 John 3:4). Paul, equally bluntly, "Abstain from every form of evil" (1 Thessalonians 5:22). And Jesus again, "Why do you call Me, 'Lord, Lord,' and do not do what I say?" (Luke 6:46).

Paul made a major point of explaining that

What the law could not do [namely, secure human conformity to itself by its own power] because of the weakness of human abilities, God brought about by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and by condemning sin in the flesh [showing it up for the imposter it is, on its own turf], in order that what the law required might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk in terms of the flesh, but in terms of the spirit. (Romans 8:3-4, PAR)." Pg 214, Willard.

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